070214 Session 20
“For if their rejection is the reconciliation of the world, what will their acceptance be but life from the dead?” (Romans 11:15, NASB95) SESSION 20 | PETER’S DEFENSE BEFORE THE JEWS & THE CHURCH AT ANTIOCH ACTS 10:43-11:30
THE SPIRIT FALLS | ACTS 10:44-48
A dispensational change had occurred, but Peter was not the recipient of the revelation. He now grasped that “God is not one to show partiality” (v. 34). How can this truth be reconciled with Matthew 10:5, 15:24, Mark 7:27, Luke 24:47, Acts 3:25-26? Only by recognizing a dispensational change. Note that Peter, who holds the keys to the Kingdom, did not use these keys. Rather, God interrupted and took maters out of Peter's hands. What would Peter's message had been if he had continued? No doubt, the same as to the Jews, "repent and be baptized for the forgiveness of sins." Peter was interrupted because God had a surprise...a dispensational change. The Jewish believers were surprised because their dispensation required the acceptance of Israel before the gentiles would be given opportunity of faith. What is happening is “unbiblical” from the standpoint of their revelation. Verse 48 is the last we see of the 12 Apostles ministering to the Gentiles.
PETER REPORTS AT JERUSALEM | ACTS 11:1-18
If there had been a dispensational change on the day of Pentecost, it is strange that so much time had gone by before any work was done with the gentiles, and when it was done, that controversy arose. Why would they take issue with him? Some say it was due to prejudice, but there is no evidence (an ample evidence against this theory, such as their rejoicing after Peter's explanation). The only viable explanation is dispensationalism--a dispensational change had taken place that the Jewish believers were unaware of (because it was a mystery!) To contend that this mystery of God's impartiality was no mystery at all is to dismantle Judaism. Why did God create a nation and give it a unique and honored roll, one in which excluded gentiles could not participate and were left without hope? Why couldn't the Jews intermarry, etc? Because God's impartiality was hidden in the dispensation.
THE PIVOT POINT | THE TRANSITION OF THE BOOK OF ACTS
As Peter gives defense, there does not appear to be any indication on Peter's part that he was ever given the revelation of the mystery. Rather, he simply seeks to "rehearse the matter" (KJV) to them, simply concluding, "Who was I that I could stand in God's way?" (v. 17) God is now working with the gentiles (v. 18), but He was still working with Israel in a transition time, so that he could eventually say, "All day long I have stretched out my hands..." (Rom 10:21). This also explains why we will see apostolic era, kingdom-related miracles through the New Testament (up to the destruction of Jerusalem), because we are in a transition period. The book of Hebrews serves as the final call to the Jewish nation before her destruction.
GENTILE BELIEVERS AT ANTIOCH | ACTS 11:19-28
Up to this point (8-10 years after Pentecost), no witness had gone to a non-Jew (v. 19). Now (v. 20), some of the diaspora was speaking to gentiles. While they had no revelation of the mystery, they had education of the mystery. Since Barnabas was the one who received Saul, he was the natural candidate to go check on matters when gentiles began to be saved in Antioch. The church was really born in Antioch, not in Jerusalem. This is the first place we see a middle wall of partition broken down, and "the mystery" at work.
PROPHETS FROM JERUSALEM | ACTS 11:27-30
This is clear indication that the "Pentecostal age" as well as the time of offering the Kingdom had not immediately ceased as the Gentiles were offered salvation. There was a transition period which would not end until the destruction of Jerusalem. If there is a great famine "all over the world," why would it affect "the brethren living in Judea" (v. 29) any more than brethren elsewhere? Later Galatia, Macedonia, and Achaia would join in the offering for Judean believers. The reason Judea is pointed out specifically is because ONLY Judean believers had sold their possessions in light of the coming Kingdom. Now, with a dispensational change, these believers were going to be in hard times. This is a complete departure from the Kingdom program, in which ALL who had ANYTHING sold it and brought it to the Apostle's feet.
THE SPIRIT FALLS | ACTS 10:44-48
A dispensational change had occurred, but Peter was not the recipient of the revelation. He now grasped that “God is not one to show partiality” (v. 34). How can this truth be reconciled with Matthew 10:5, 15:24, Mark 7:27, Luke 24:47, Acts 3:25-26? Only by recognizing a dispensational change. Note that Peter, who holds the keys to the Kingdom, did not use these keys. Rather, God interrupted and took maters out of Peter's hands. What would Peter's message had been if he had continued? No doubt, the same as to the Jews, "repent and be baptized for the forgiveness of sins." Peter was interrupted because God had a surprise...a dispensational change. The Jewish believers were surprised because their dispensation required the acceptance of Israel before the gentiles would be given opportunity of faith. What is happening is “unbiblical” from the standpoint of their revelation. Verse 48 is the last we see of the 12 Apostles ministering to the Gentiles.
PETER REPORTS AT JERUSALEM | ACTS 11:1-18
If there had been a dispensational change on the day of Pentecost, it is strange that so much time had gone by before any work was done with the gentiles, and when it was done, that controversy arose. Why would they take issue with him? Some say it was due to prejudice, but there is no evidence (an ample evidence against this theory, such as their rejoicing after Peter's explanation). The only viable explanation is dispensationalism--a dispensational change had taken place that the Jewish believers were unaware of (because it was a mystery!) To contend that this mystery of God's impartiality was no mystery at all is to dismantle Judaism. Why did God create a nation and give it a unique and honored roll, one in which excluded gentiles could not participate and were left without hope? Why couldn't the Jews intermarry, etc? Because God's impartiality was hidden in the dispensation.
THE PIVOT POINT | THE TRANSITION OF THE BOOK OF ACTS
As Peter gives defense, there does not appear to be any indication on Peter's part that he was ever given the revelation of the mystery. Rather, he simply seeks to "rehearse the matter" (KJV) to them, simply concluding, "Who was I that I could stand in God's way?" (v. 17) God is now working with the gentiles (v. 18), but He was still working with Israel in a transition time, so that he could eventually say, "All day long I have stretched out my hands..." (Rom 10:21). This also explains why we will see apostolic era, kingdom-related miracles through the New Testament (up to the destruction of Jerusalem), because we are in a transition period. The book of Hebrews serves as the final call to the Jewish nation before her destruction.
GENTILE BELIEVERS AT ANTIOCH | ACTS 11:19-28
Up to this point (8-10 years after Pentecost), no witness had gone to a non-Jew (v. 19). Now (v. 20), some of the diaspora was speaking to gentiles. While they had no revelation of the mystery, they had education of the mystery. Since Barnabas was the one who received Saul, he was the natural candidate to go check on matters when gentiles began to be saved in Antioch. The church was really born in Antioch, not in Jerusalem. This is the first place we see a middle wall of partition broken down, and "the mystery" at work.
PROPHETS FROM JERUSALEM | ACTS 11:27-30
This is clear indication that the "Pentecostal age" as well as the time of offering the Kingdom had not immediately ceased as the Gentiles were offered salvation. There was a transition period which would not end until the destruction of Jerusalem. If there is a great famine "all over the world," why would it affect "the brethren living in Judea" (v. 29) any more than brethren elsewhere? Later Galatia, Macedonia, and Achaia would join in the offering for Judean believers. The reason Judea is pointed out specifically is because ONLY Judean believers had sold their possessions in light of the coming Kingdom. Now, with a dispensational change, these believers were going to be in hard times. This is a complete departure from the Kingdom program, in which ALL who had ANYTHING sold it and brought it to the Apostle's feet.
